I just described why. It is the attraction to a forced relationship, no prepubescent child is sexually driven....ther fore the attraction is to someone that is NOT attracted to the pedophile and is NOT attracted to sexual activity in any manner.
A hairy ass is also a sign of puberty having been reached isn't it? So you can take that bs attempt and....well you know....
And the point, that you glossed over, was that I see homosexuality as natural partially because these attractions exist in nature, but pedophilia does not (post pubescent sexual relationships do, but NOT prepubescent).
Third what I meant was.....a pedophile attraction couldn't possibly exist at young ages, since it is the attraction to prepubescent children in grown men or women....however homosexual attraction DOES exist in young ages. This is the main element to my identification of homosexuality as natural and pedophilia as unnatural.
We weren't talking about Children being attracted to other children boom...no one thinks kids desire Sex...you just threw that in there to try and make a point which didn't exist in our original comparisons of the simple attraction of one sexually stimulated to children as opposed to their own sex.
You never for one moment thought I was talking about kids attracted to each other. We're talking about Adults, who by definition are aware of and can control their sexuality and how to express it.
I never suggested and in fact insisted just for reasons of our comparison that no sex was ever involved in either case. You're the one who suggested it's not even necessary in order for one to be considered homosexual.
OK, I gave you that assumption, then asked you to compare only sexual desires of that same person (again assuming it's an adult) to another adult who simply has desires for Children. I specifically said there is no sex involved, because that's how you chose to define a homosexual with so called "normal" desires.
Now all of a sudden in your example to compare those two desires or attractions, you're talking about "forced sex" and "control" to prove your point why one attraction is normal and the other is psychological and not normal. Yet, I never said any sex was involved in either comparison boom.
You are trying to justify what you consider normal sexual attraction in the case of non sexually active homosexuality, with what you think is a psychological disturbance in the case of a pedophile attraction...but in order to prove the difference you suggest Sex must be involved to justify your position of one being "psychological" and no sex is needed in your same example in order to be an uncontrollable natural "desire".
Again, you ascribe one definition to one natural attraction and then equate all sorts of sexual activity to it, and then you excuse any sex in the case of the other in order to claim it as normal with no sex needing to be involved.
It's not a logical or even balanced argument because what I claim and still insist which you also disagree with is that BOTH attractions are neither normal or uncontrollable and in fact are perverse whether Sex is involved or not.
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